Left/Right or beyond or against the lot. Not a place for liberal bedwetters.
Thu Jan 05, 2012 5:35 am
Usually, when you read that Hitler was a jew, you have only informations of suspicion about his mother, his jewish ministers and generals, etc... Sometimes, the paper is smarter and tells you that he was the creator of Israel. You can also be aware of the many discrepancies from Hitler (Dunkirk for example).
But, if you think a little bit, you fall quickly on the following inconsistency : if he was a jew, why did he sent the jews to the camps ? I don't speak of extermination of course. Everybody here knows what to think about that. I speak about the deportation itself. If he was a jew working for jewish leaders, he wouldn't have deported millions of jews into the camps.
So, you are blocked with this logical problem. But, hopefully, with the following analysis, the inconsistency is explained, and you can understand why Hitler had to be a jew. You are then absolutely sure that he was one of them.
Jewish leaders wanted to create Israel. They had made moves toward this goal since 1880. And since the 1920's, they had accelerated their actions to create Israel. Around 1920, it was clear that Israel would be created soon, near the 40's or the 50's.
BUT, they had a very big problem. They could steal the land of Palestine. It was very easy for them. But the jews were very well in Europe, stealing the wealth of the goys. So, jewish leader would have had only some thousands of jews going to Israel. And thus, the creation of Israel would have been a failure.
So, if jewish leaders wanted to have millions of jews going to Israel near 1940 or 1950, they desperately needed someone who would : steal the houses and wealth of the European jews, send them to camps, preferably in foreign countries so they would not know the language of the country.
And this leader had to be able to deport not only jews from his own country, but also from other European countries. So, he had to make wars against other European countries, and to win them for some time (before loosing when the deportation work had been done).
Jewish leaders also had to make sure that other countries would limit the immigration of jews toward them, in order to oblige jews to go to only one country : Israel.
So, of course, the rise of Hitler was not a hazard at all (and a wonderful one for jewish leaders). He was put at this place to realize the plan of the jewish leaders. And of course, he was a jew. Putting a goy at this place, with so much power would have been too dangerous for jewish leaders.
And the war was a faked one. Hitler has won at the beginning because it was planned like that ; because he had to put into camps not only german jews, but also jews from France, Belgium, Italy, Poland, Russia, etc... When the work was done, as the plan had been accomplished, Hitler began to lose the war (of course, he didn't commit suicide. He fled away and died much later).
And of course, USA and European countries refused many jews in order to oblige them to go to Israel.
The sudden and very incredible antisemitism of Stalin (who was in fact a jew), after 1942, was also planned for this goal. With Stalin being antisemitic, russian jews were pushed toward Israel.
We can think that the McCarthyism was also a part of that plan. USA couldn't be antisemitic after the war, so jewish leaders replaced that by anticommunism (European jews of that time were often communism, or communism friendly or had communist friends). Then, they were able to keep preventing jews from coming to the USA instead of going to Israel.
The fake opposition between England and the jews after the war, was also created for this reason (and also to keep feeding the paranoia of the common jews).
When you understand that, you can understand why the jews provoked World War I. When you watch the map of the middle east before the war, you see the big turkish empire. After the war, the empire has collapsed and is replaced by many countries of small and medium importance. It's sure that the turkish empire was a big problem for zionist leaders : 1) for the creation of Israel 2) and after that, for is survival (having medium or little countries in front of Israel is better than having a big empire). So, it's obvious that they had to destroy it before in order to be able to create Israel. WWI was also made to create the preconditions of the rise of Hitler and USSR, which were themselves preconditions to the creation of Israel.
Thu Jan 05, 2012 5:35 am
I have already presented the plan behind ww2. They have put the jew Hitler in power in order to oblige everyday jews to go to Israel. After losing everything and being in the suddenly hostile USSR after the war, the choice of going to Israel seemed a quite good deal for them.
But jewish leaders were obliged to make a plan in two parts. They couldn't have a Hitler all of a sudden. And for their ww2 plan, they had to control every important countries. And it seems that, in 1914, Russia was not into control yet. Great Britain was, France was, USA were, Germany and Austria most probably were. But it seems that it was not the case of Russia.
Or maybe it was. But they had to justify the future hatred against jews and Russia (which had become communist at this time) from the future nazi government. So, even if it was in control, they had to destroy the Russian government and to replace it by a one with a very visible domination from jews.
So they had to create a first European war in order to create the conditions of success for the ww2 plan.
So, with ww1, they were able to :
1) Justify the rise of Hitler because of the Versailles treaty, the poverty caused by the war (and by the jews after the collapse stocks markets of October 1929), the supposed stab in the back from jews in 1918, and the communist-jewish menace from USSR.
2) Justify the war against the now communist and dominated by jews USSR in 1940.
3) They were also able to create the condition of existence for Israel in the middle-east. The Turkish empire was too big and too powerful for the future Israel. They had to split it into several pieces in order to have only countries with little or average size and power. With ww1, they were able to justify the collapse of the Turkish empire in 1920.
Thu Jan 05, 2012 5:37 am
There are many things which are much too shady about Hitler and which sustain the idea is was jew working for more powerful jewish leaders and that all those events were faked and planned.
1) First of all, in a country dominated by jews as was Germany during the 20's and the 30's, it would have been impossible for a hostile goy like Hitler to come to power. When they control a country, jewish leaders don't let hostile goyims take back the power. So, the rise of Hitler is unbelievable, especially in such a short period of time.
2) The reaction of Hitler about Dunkirk is also incredible. He can capture the entire English army. But what does he do ? He let them flee. What !!? And the Hitler's pretext is that he had a great respect for England ! Wtf !!? No, only a traitor acts like that. A real nazi would never have done that.
He did that because he was a zionist jew. And as the war was a fake one, he had to let the english army flee. Otherwise, England couldn't have continued the war. And the USA couldn't have made the D-day and won the war with the USSR as it was planned.
3) Hitler knew a two-front war was something he had to avoid at all costs. He told many times that it was that which had lead to the defeat during WWI. But what does he do ? He attacks USSR before having destroyed England, thus creating a... two-front war.
4) Hitler doesn't invade the strait of Gibraltar, which would have made him the master of the Mediterranean sea, thus preventing the battles of north Africa, and also the invasion of Italy and of the south of France. The communication lines between England and its empire (like India), would have been much more extended.
Maybe he would have been obliged to invade Spain also. But without the threat of an invasion in the south of Europe, he would have been able to remove troops from other areas, like Greece. And as Spain was exhausted by the war of 1936 (which had ended in 1939), it would have been very easy to defeat it.
Another one than myself has seen other discrepancies :
5) "The Jew Hitler refuses to even feint an attack on Britain to draw the British navy to the channel, were it could be obliterated by aircraft".
Very relevant. England could prevent a landing with their fleet. But their fleet could have been destroyed by the german aircraft.
6) "The Jew Hitler declares war on the U.S., even though he was no more obliged to declare war on the U.S. than Japan was obliged to declare war on the Soviet Union, which Germany had been fighting since June 1941. Japan never declared war on the Soviet Union."
7) "The Jew Hitler (against the advice of all his generals) single-handedly saves Moscow by ordering army group "Center" to stop its advance on Moscow".
8) "The Jew Hitler tells the Soviets an attack will occur at Kursk. The Jew Hitler delays the attack for more than four months, until the Soviets have built defensive lines eight deep. The Soviets concentrate 1,300,000 soldiers with 3,600 tanks, 20,000 artillery pieces, including 6,000 76mm anti-tank guns, and 2,400 aircraft in and around Kursk. An attack anywhere other than Kursk would be fatal for the Soviets, but the Soviets seem to know that the attack will come only at Kursk."
They knew it because the war was a fake one, planned by the jewish leaders.
9) "The Jew Hitler orders German troops to attack the most heavily defended lines ever constructed, at Kursk".
"The Jew Hitler is amazed by the supermen of the elite SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte, who, in the south, break through all eight defensive lines and take on the Soviet reserve tank battalions".
"Less than two weeks into the offensive, worried that the Liebstandarte might win the battle for the Germans, the Jew Hitler strips this elite group of their tanks and ships them to Northern Italy, where they sit on their hands for some months before returning to the eastern front. The pretext of the Sicily invasion is used".
As there was enough jews in the concentration camps, Hitler's mission was over, and then, he had to loose the war. And the unexpected success of the SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte was not at all a part of the plan. So, he sent them far away.
And, of course, it was not because he was caring for his troops. In many other occasions, orders were to be killed rather than retreating.
This stupid strategy of being killed rather than retreating was also a part of the jewish plan. With an elastic defense, the war could have last two or three more years. But jewish leaders didn't need the war anymore. So, Hitler had to choose a stupid strategy which would accelerate the end of the war.
10) "The Jew Hitler refuses total mobilisation of the German people, even though the munitions factories cried out for manpower and all his enemies had recruited woman into the work force. The Jew Hitler never bothered to use half the potential German labor force."
11) "And do you think (the Jew) Roosevelt would have forced the Japanese into the very destructive Pacific war, if he hadn't been certain Hitler would declare war on the United States? How was Roosevelt so sure Hitler would declare war on the United States. What if Hitler had just said, "Piss off, Roosevelt. Enjoy your little war against Japan." Then Roosevelt would have ended up just fighting the Japanese without being able to drag the United States into direct participation in the European war. ..... and it goes on and on ..... instance, after instance, of Hitler single-handedly losing the war for the Germans (and winning it for the Jews)."
Thu Jan 05, 2012 5:38 am
I have discovered recently another discrepancy. It's about the armistice treaty between Germany and France after the defeat of French armies in 1940.
The treaty is quite bizarre. Hitler let a free zone for French people in the south of France (representing nearly half of the French territory) and he let them their colonies. The french armies were completely defeated. So, he could have invaded the entire territory of France and said "now, all your possessions belong to me". French government couldn't have said anything to that. But no, he decides to let a free zone. And he decides also to let them their colony. A very strange clemency.
But, when you know Hitler was a zionist jew and you observe the north African map, you understand why Hitler the jew did that.
France possessed colonies at this time in north Africa. They possessed Tunisia, Algeria, AND Morocco. And Morroco is at the south side of the strait of Gibraltar.
So, if Hitler had decided not to be clement, and to take every French possessions and territories (by a imposed treaty), he would have also taken Morocco. And then, he would have controlled the strait of Gibraltar. Spain controlled a thin band of the north of the Morocco territory, but the French territory was largely near enough of the strait of Gibraltar to let Hitler be able to control it without invading the Spanish protectorate. But Hitler could have also invade the Spanish protectorate. Spain couldn't have stopped the German armies.
And what would have happened if Hitler had controlled the strait ? Germany would have controlled the entire Mediterranean sea, and all the north of Africa. Then, they wouldn't have had to keep large forces in the the south of Europe and in north Africa. they could have invade Iraq an take his oil. England would have been very far from his Indian colonies.
And at this time England was unable to prevent this from happening. So, there was nobody to stop Hitler from invading French (and eventually Spanish) Morocco.
Thus, as Hitler was a jew, he had to show such a strange clemency toward France, and to let them keep the south of France and all their colonies. Without this clemency, Germany would have been stronger and England weaker. And it would have been longer to finish the faked wwII. Or the events would have been less coherent and thus less believable.
It also explains why the German armies didn't rush toward Morocco (and didn't installed a simple defensive line against English armies. English armies which would have been defenseless once the strait of Gibraltar controlled, because of a lack of supplies) instead of trying to obliterate English armies when they decided to fight in north Africa (February 1941).
So by not invading Morocco in 1940 and in February 1941, Hitler let England the time to rebuild their forces and to be able (with the USA), to invade Morocco. And all this was planned from the beginning.
Thu Jan 05, 2012 2:54 pm
SerbdomFighter wrote:About France: What about the Vichy-regime (French collaborators)? They got the colonies and southern France by the Nazis. But most interesting is that the leader of the Vichy-regime (Henri-Philippe Petain) was a Mason or even a crypto-Jew, here the proof:
Thanks a lot for this image. I was also sure that Petain was at least a Mason, and maybe even a crypto-Jew. In France, in advanced nationalist groups, it is a known fact that the army had been almost totally infiltrated by Masons since the fall of the 19th century (but it had been most probably already completely infiltrated since the early years of the 19th century, with the French Masonic revolution and after that, with Napoleon). So, it would have been nearly impossible that Petain would not have been one of them. And when you know that everything was stagged by Jewish leaders during the war, it becomes even more obvious. Petain could never have been a simple Gentile. It is 100 % sure that he was a Mason or a Jew (as every other European leaders at this period of time).
But with this image, we have a proof of that. That's great.
Thu Jan 05, 2012 3:40 pm
Reading the Wikipedia page about Petain, I have learn that is complete name is Henri Philippe Bénoni Omer Pétain. Omer is a Hebrew name. It means : "sheaf (of wheat)". Ben is also often used by jews. Omer is also a Jewish ritual (Sefirat Ha'omer). It is the verbal counting of each of the forty-nine days between the Jewish holidays of Passover and Shavuot.
So, with what we know otherwise about Petain, we can think that he was not simply a Mason, but even a jew.
Of course, jewish sayanims would certainly answer that his name comes from the town of Saint-Omer (in the north of France), since Petain is from Cauchy la Tour, which is very close to St Omer (only 15 km, approximatively). But French don't take their name from town. Only jews do that. So, this argument doesn't worth anything. It sustains more the idea that he was a jew.
Last edited by Hexzane
on Thu Jan 05, 2012 10:27 pm, edited 2 times in total.
Fri Jan 06, 2012 12:36 am
About Franco, I will try to find informations about him. But already, we can notice that his surname (Franco) is usually a first name. In English, it would be Francis Franck. And it is mainly jews who have surnames which are usually first names.
With an ordinary person, you could have a doubt. With a leader of this time, who is so dubious, it's a big clue.
Fri Jan 06, 2012 1:38 am
SerbdomFighter wrote:Hitler did many (military) blunders, one of these blunders was Dunkirk, where he allowed over 330.000 Allied troops (British and French) to flee. I want to know more about Great Britain and battle of Britain. From one page it´s written that Great Britain was defenseless and Hitler refused to attack Great Britain. If I´m not wrong, Hitler ordered to bomb only British cities, especially London. Do you have more informations about this?
About the fact that Hitler was about to win the air battle because English air force was almost exhausted, I think it is quite well known. I have always heard that.
On the French Wikipedia about "Battle of Britain" you find this (about the 7th of September) :
"This change allowed the RAF, which was almost at the breakpoint to take a breath. By putting the charge of offensive on civil populations, Germans allowed the RAF to build-up again."
This is why I had written this on "Thy weapon of war" :
Someone has written this:
"When the planned invasion of Britain had been initiated, the military advisers said that the massive attack can only be carried out once the RAF is destroyed by the Luftwaffe and only then their military barges can be protected by the German Navy. Hitler's Luftwaffe almost destroyed the RAF for many exhausting battles, but suddenly decided to direct his Luftwaffe bombers to attack major cities instead of finishing RAF completely. A serious mistake that could possibly win the battle of Britain. So there was no massive attack that happen and the Luftwaffe suffers many losses from hitting cities protected by anti-aircrafts."
So, Hitler was about to destroy the RAF completely. And he didn't do it. And this isn't the attack on the USSR which has saved it, this is the fact has changed his strategy. Suddenly, without any reason, he has begun to attack towns instead of keeping concentrated on the destruction of the RAF. And, in addition, the attack of towns has lead to tons of losses because of the English anti-aircraft. Without this change in his strategy, Hitler could have entirely obliterated the RAF. And with the complete control of the air, it would have been very easy to invade England. But it wasn't in the plan of jewish leaders.
Last edited by Hexzane
on Fri Jan 06, 2012 1:53 am, edited 1 time in total.
Fri Jan 06, 2012 1:51 am
Of course, many events from the 20's and 30's were made with the goal of pushing people to vote for Hitler.
1) The German revolution was made of course to provoke a change of government (empire to republic). But the secondary goal was to create a hatred from goys toward jews with the theory of the stab in the back defended later by the nazi's. And of course, it allowed Nazis to present communism and jews as enemies to German people.
2) The treaty of Versailles and the reparations were made to make German people displeased and to make them feel discontent toward English and French governments.
3) the hyperinflation of 1923 was voluntarily created in order to ruin a part of the upper middle class, and so, to make them very angry. The other goal was probably to suppress the debt of the German government. Being liberated from the debt, it was then easier for them to make a rearmament (also with the help of jewish money).
We can find in Wikipedia informations about the fact that hyperinflation was very favorable to Hitler.
"Although the inflation ended with the introduction of the Rentenmark and the Weimar Republic continued for a decade afterwards, hyperinflation is widely believed to have contributed to the Nazi takeover of Germany and Adolf Hitler's rise to power. Adolf Hitler himself in his book, Mein Kampf, makes many references to the German debt and the negative consequences that brought about the inevitability of "National Socialism". The inflation also raised doubts about the competence of liberal institutions, especially amongst a middle class who had held cash savings and bonds. It also produced resentment of bankers and speculators, whom the government and press blamed for the inflation. Many of them were Jews, and some Germans called the hyperinflated Weimar banknotes Jew Confetti".
4) The Ruhr invasion in 1923 and 1924 (officially made to oblige German government to pay the reparations), was another action made to produce discontent in the German population.
5) Same thing, the stock market crash of 1929 and the great depression which followed were made, among other things, with the goal of provoking the ruin of the German upper middle class, the impoverishment of the middle class and also provoking a massive amount of unemployment, thus creating even more discontent.
6) All the informations about the involvement of jews in the Russian revolution were given to increase the resentment against jews. We can notice that after 1940, when nazism was no more necessary, suddenly, we haven't informations about the jews in USSR anymore. Some people will say it's because jews were expelled from power by Stalin. But when jewish leaders have the power, they never let it go so easily. So, it's obvious that jews were still possessing the power after Stalin. And then, we should have informations about them.
Fri Jan 06, 2012 1:54 am
One other discrepancy :
The pact between Hitler and Stalin is absurd. Jewish communists collaborating with an antisemitic nazi ? It's pure nonsense.
It's probably also for this reason that jews have invented the story of Stalin having become quite antisemitic. Otherwise, it would have been completely illogical. With Stalin making purges against jews and thus, being hostile to them, it was possible to explain this pact.
The other main reason of the sudden and incredible anti-Semitism of Stalin was to push jews to leave the USSR after the war and go to Israel. If USSR had still been the paradise for jews it was before Stalin, no jews from USSR would have wanted to go to Israel.
If jewish leaders have kept secret the presence of jews at the head of the soviet power after 1940, it is also to explain why USSR was no more favorable to jews. If jews had still dominated the USSR, people wouldn't understand why Stalin did this.
The other big reason is that jewish leaders hide their real power. They don't want goys to know that 80 or 90 % of the leaders of a country are jews. So, as they didn't need goys to know the power of jews in USSR anymore, they hide it once again.
This is why, suddenly, after 1940, it seems there was no jews anymore at the head of the soviet state. Which is completely incredible. We know that when jews have the power, they don't let it go. So, USSR was certainly still dominated by jews after 1940.
And of course, if jewish leaders have let some newspapers and some writers reveal the massive presence of jews at the head of the USSR state during the 20's and 30's, it was to give another reason to the rise of Hitler, and for the fight between Germany and the USSR. Those revelations were meant to be only temporary.
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